Great White Throne of Judgement


Dr H..

Dr H..

Active Member
I was watching a "gospel" program last night and the people were saying they will be happy to stand before the "Great White Throne on Judgement Day"

I am saying to myself are these people insane do they realize what they are asking. Truly, some of them will be standing before the Great White Throne of Judgement.

Revelation 20:11-14

Who will stand before THE GREAT WHITE THRONE JUDGEMENT? The answer is dead people. Verse 12 reads, "Read Scripture"


These are people who are "dead" in two ways. They are dead physically. The resurrection of the wicked dead will be a literal bodily resurrection, which necessitates the spirit and soul returning to the body. In verse 13 it is clear that bodies are brought forth from every depository and corner of t he earth present and past that holds their dust. No matter what happens to your body, God will summons your body once again to stand before His presence.

These people are also dead spiritually! These are those who by their own choice are dead to God, "dead in trespasses and sins. THE GREAT WHITE THRONE JUDGEMENT is for the unsaved, the lost, those who have refused the sacrifice of Jesus Christ by which God is able to forgive sin! This passage tells us that there will be present individuals from all walks of life [death and jusgement is not prejduice], will stand before Christ unprepared. No one is excluded from this judgement unless they are saved!

Gods Court or throne has full power and authority to destroy both the body and soul in Hell for eternity! Jesus warned in Matthew 10:28 "And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in Hell." ... There is no exemption for those who reject the Christ.

This will take place at the second coming of Christ. Contrary, to popular belief, He will not be coming back to fulfill 1 Corinthians 13:10, but bring final judgement of mankind. I am still searching for the scriptures where His return supports 1 Corinthians 13:10

**
It never cease to amaze me how individuals sing songs or preach sermons with out know the full meaning of the text.
 
You just don't get it do you. Because WHEN JESUS COMES BACK, THERE WILL BE A RAPTURE OF ALL SPIRIT FILLED CHRISTIANS. ONLY UNSAVED WILL BE LEFT ON THE WORLD. PEOPLE WITHOUT THE SPIRIT. SO, IF THERE IS NO MORE SPIRIT FILLED PEOPLE, THEN THERE WILL BE NO SPIRITUL GIFTS LEFT BECAUSE NO ONE IS LEFT TO PERFORM THEM. YOU CAN ONLY SPEAK IN TONGUES, PROPHECY, CAST OUT DEVILS, ECT. IF YOU HAVE GOD'S SPIRIT. THOSE WITH OUT THE SPIRIT IS NONE OF HIS. WHEN HE COMES BACK, HE IS COMMING FOR THOSE WHO HAVE THE SPIRIT. A BLIND MAN CAN READ AND UNDERSTAND THAT.
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WHY DO YOU CALL YOUR SELF A DR? JUST WONDERING.....
MY SECOND QUESTION TO YOU IS, WHAT IS THE PERFECT THING THAT PAUL IS SPEAKING OF IN COR IF IT'S NOT JESUS? DO YOU KNOW ANOTHER PERFECT PERSON?
 



DWAYNE

What in the hell does, your comment have to do with the subject.


What scripture suggest that anyone will be left behind:

Explain

In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. 1 Cor. 15:52 -58


Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. 1 Thess 4:1 - 18

The word rapture is not used in the bibe. You have been looking at to TV and reading "Hubbard"

The Perfect is the complete word of God - read the previous scriptures. Jesus, had already "been" here. His next return will be for the Judgement.

If you look at the scripture 1 Cor 13:1-10. Jesus is not mentioned in the Chapter. Jesus is not the subject, therefore, "perfect" could not refer to Jesus. The Chapter is about spiritual gifts and those that will cease [end] whenthat which is perfect come. Jesus will never be fefered to "which is" becasue He is a being and would be refered to by name or gender. Therefore, the scripture has to be talking about an object.

The word perfect mean brought to its end, finished[teleios {tel'-i-os}] so how would the word perfect fit Jesus return. If what youa are saying "is true" what part of Jesus "will be brought to it end" or what part [referring back to the scripture] of Jesus will be done away -

Please expalin this part of the scripture"

"That wich is in part"


But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 1 Cor. 13:10
 
May I interject?

Where do I start...

First let me say, the "rapture" is not mentioned in scripture but "a catching away" is mentioned several times. This catching away will not be before the tribulation it will be after (STUDY Revelation, Daniel, I Thessalonians, Matthew 24 etc.) There are MANY false teachings stating that the church will be ?raptured? before the Tribulation. Not so! It is augured that the church is not mentioned after chapter 4. This is a doctrine of demons. As a matter of fact the whole church is not saved. Only the Saints in the church are saved. Remember, the church is made up of sheep and goats, wheat and tares. If we study the book of Revelation for ourselves we would see that Satan makes war with the Saints (Revelation 13:7, 11:7, Daniel 7:21). Revelation 12:17? he went to make war with the rest of her offspring, who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Jesus Christ. How can he do this if they are gone?

1 Corinthians 3:10? If we keep this in its proper context is speaking of Love. That which is perfect is the end! When there is time no longer. It is not the Word of God/the scriptures, because if that were the case lawlessness would have come to an end.

Christ next return on earth will be indeed for judgment but he will first come to get His saints (Matthew 24, Revelation 6, 11, 14 & 18 to name a few). This is when we will be changed and meet him in the air. He states in Matthew 24 that once we see all these things (the 1st 6 seals, the trumpets and the bowls) look up for/because our redemption draws nigh/near. Furthermore, the saint?s are not appointed to god?s wrath.



Just a little side note?he which letteth, stands for or restrains is not the Holy Spirit but is Michael the Archangel who lets, stands or restrains for Israel, according to Daniel 10:21, 12:1. This is to refute the teaching that the Holy Spirit will be taken out of the way.


Sorry, I jumped around on and at different points.
 
The churches are mention only once after Chapter 4, in 22:16

In a nutshell, the spiritual gifts like prophesying and speaking in tongues, they are immature gifts and they have ?passed away? ceased. How do we know that they are immature gifts? The answer is found in verse 11, where Paul further makes clear his meaning from [8-10], he compares the maturity of a child to that of an adult.

DWAYNE

I could agree with you that ?Perfect? was referring to Jesus, if the scripture read something like this:

But when [HE] that is perfect come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

But when [THE PERFECT ONE] come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

But when [the anointed one] that is perfect come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

However, the scripture does not read like that. Therefore, verse 10 could not refer to Christ. There has to be a statement of transition redirection the attention of the reader from the original subject [Spiritual Gifts, more specifically 8,9] to Christ. The reason we know Charity is excluded from the list of those Spiritual Gift that will [fail, cease or done away] because of the statement ?Charity never fail? the transition word is ?but? .
 
Dr H,

How do you figure that spiritual gifts have ceased? What facts do you have to support such a statement? We have to let scripture interpret scripture to rightly divide the Word.

So, are you saying that Pentecost was the complete fulfillment of Joel 2:28-32? If that is the case most of the events in the book of Revelation occurred in the 1st Century. And if that is true the Day of the Lord has been fulfilled and the world has been judged. Eisegesis has served a grave blow to the church that is why we have no power.
 
Chad

The Day of Pentecost amd Joel go hand in hand. Yes, the day of Pentecost was fulfilled on the Day of Pentecost.

Name on spiritual gift, beside Charity [Love] that has not ceased?

The words penned by the Apostle Paul says:

list three things that will end.

1. Prophecies, they shall fail
2. Tongues, they shall cease
3. Knowledge, shall vanish away

The word fail [Katargeo] mean to make useless or void, abolish, to leave unemployed


If you beleive that there are individuals that can do all that the Apostled was able to do, have at it. As I told Dwayne, start visiting the nursing homes, hospitals, grave yards etc, etc.....
 
Dr H:

Paul wrote that they SHALL fail, cease and vanish. Not that they had or in his time have failed, ceased or vanished. In its proper context that chapter is speaking of love and how only love will continue. There is no need for the others at the time of the end. But Dr H, the end is not yet.

I asked you, ?What were your facts to support that spiritual gifts had ceased.? Scriptural facts, that is. If knowledge has vanished away how could you even conceive what is written? For prophecy to cease then we would have to be at the end. That is, to the point where there is time no longer. Dr H, are we at that point? If so, then the world should have been judged already. You can't go on what you feel or think you must go strictly by the Word. Eisegesis has served a grave blow to the church that is why we have no power.

Yes, the day of Pentecost was fulfilled at Pentecost but the FULLFILLMENT of Joel 2 was not. If that is the case the Day of the Lord would have immediately followed. Has the world been judged yet?

But, I digress?
Did not Paul write to the Corinthians NOT to forbid speaking with tongues? It seems the fact of the matter is that you are holding so tightly to 1 Corinthians 13:8-11 that you totally miss chapter 14 that follows chapter 13.

1 Corinthians 14:37-40
37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.
38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.
40 Let all things be done decently and in order.

Chad
 
You know this can be tossed around and you are going to beleive what you want and I am going to beleive what is written. So go ahead and speak in tongues, ccast out devils. lay hands on the sick and heal them, walk on water and such like.

Let me know when you ae going to visit your local hospital


God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

Hebrews 1:1-2
 
Dr H,

First, a gift or gifts of the Spirit are just that. Gifts that He gives?dividing to every man severally/individually as He will. So, you are wrong with your statement of one needing to go to the Hospital and curing everyone there. It is God who wills, not man. For someone to claim that they have the gift of healing of prophecy or whatnot would be and is unscriptural. Please don?t try and cast dispersion on what I wrote.

I asked on a couple of occasions for scriptural proof of YOUR hypotheses. Yet, you tend to avoid the question. I can prove what I have stated by the scriptures. Can or will you?

Dr H, what does Hebrews 1:1-2 have to do with our dialogue? I am sure you know what prooftexting is, right? We have to rightly divide the word of truth.

Chad
 
Chad. You are waisting your time. We know better, leave it alone. There is nothing you are going to tell him that I haven't. Lets talk about things that we agree on. That will allow JESUS to be in the mist of us. We wont agree on this, so lets talk on things that we agree on.
 
Dwayne,

If I read something that needs to be addressed then that is what I have to do...address it. In my addressing it is where the Holy Spirit will open eyes and hearts. One plants and another waters but it is God who gives the increase.

Chad
 
Simply put as applied today:

Speaking jibberish is not speaking in tongues.

No one can speak in tongues <b>NOW</b>.

No one can heal another person <b>NOW</b>.

God does not give you special powers <b>NOW</b>.

God does not speak to anyone directly <b>NOW</b>.

Miracles as they occured in the Bible do not happen <b>NOW</b>.

We don't need any of this. God has given us his son. All of this has "cease". We all know what we really need to do.
 



Doc,

Tongues is a sign to unbelievers

1 Corinthians 14:20-25
20 Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however, in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature.
21 In the law it is written:


"With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,"


says the Lord.
22 Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe. 23 Therefore if the whole church comes together in one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those who are uninformed or unbelievers, will they not say that you are out of your mind? 24 But if all prophesy, and an unbeliever or an uninformed person comes in, he is convinced by all, he is convicted by all. 25 And thus the secrets of his heart are revealed; and so, falling down on his face, he will worship God and report that God is truly among you.


Now I answered your question although you refuse to answer mine.
 
On the speaking in tongues issue, look at Acts 2:4 which says something to the effect, "they began to speak with other tongues". This is not referencing the jibberish you here in some churches where they "teach" you how to speak in tongues. This was in reference to people speaking in languages "foreign" to their own tongue. In other words, it is like me being able to speak to a Mexican without studying on the language. It is NOT in reference to speaking some unknown unearthly mobo jobo language. All of the information mentioned by Paul on tongues was in reference to foreign language. There is no evidence of a situation in the Bible where some people understood the language and other didn't like you would get in some churches today. If speaking in tongues really existed today, that means that I could go to a church and the Mexican could go to the same church and WE BOTH understand what was said. That would be the miracle!! Not "Amasaing bya mocku sock". What is the point of speaking in tongues if no one understands what you are saying?

Paul also mentioned "Charity (love) never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away? (13:8)."
 
Despite it being for unbelievers, miracles served to confirm, ?authenticate? and verify the truth. When Jesus sent the apostles out on the Great Commission, it is said, "And they went out and preached everywhere, the Lord working with them and confirming the word [logos] through the accompanying signs" (Mark 16:20). In addition, the purpose of this gift of tongues was to convince Jewish Christians that ? . . . God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life" (Acts 11:18).

Read Hebrews 2:2-4

I Corinthians 13:8-10

The Holy Spirit revealed God?s will only a part at a time, "bit by bit." Beginning in Genesis. A full and complete revelation was not revealed to the apostles at once. The miraculous powers such as prophecies, foreign languages [dikanos], supernatural knowledge, were some of the miracles by which the gospel was revealed and confirmed. However, when the gospel was completely revealed, miracles had served their purpose and ceased.

The "perfect" to which Paul refers does not mean the will of God, or the coming of Jesus Christ, who is the "Perfect One." Grammatically, when Paul said, "When the perfect is come," he used the neuter gender. Christ is not neuter gender, but masculine, only objects ?books, cars, houses, paper? are neuter, meaning neither male nor female. The word Paul use for perfect means "brought to completion; fully accomplished, fully developed; complete, entire, as opposed to what is partial and limited" (I Corinthians 13:10, Analytical Greek Lexicon). Therefore, when God's revelation to man was completed, "fully developed, entire," [The Gospel] there was no further need for miracles. They had served their purpose and come to an end--were "done away." We now have the perfect law of liberty, the Gospel (James 1:25).

In the Book of Jude. He write about "the faith, which was once for all delivered to the saints" (Jude 3). meaning the Gospel will never have to be modified or amended; it is perfect, complete, and finished. These miraculous gifts were to last until "the faith" was completed, until it became one unit [Walk by Faith and not by Sight]. Once it was made whole, finished, fully developed, the miracles which had been responsible for its revelation and confirmation passed away, because we know have the complete word of God [Bible]. That complete revelation was completed in A.D. 96, when the Apostle John finished his last letter [Revelation]. We now have the written word of God, all of the truth into which the apostles were guided by the Holy Spirit.
What purpose could tongues serve now in the plan of God?

Spiritual gifts were helping hands to an infant immature church. ?When I was a child I spoke as a child?put away childish things?

One thing for sure the grammatical structure of the Greek Language does not lie
 
I must side with Dr. H and Killer Bees. I think Dr H. has been on point all along.

It appears that the entire argument boils down to specific references. For one what does "perfection" reference in 1 Cor. 13:10. I cannot believe that it refers to Jesus simply by the fact that it does not appear in the same manner as other references to Jesus, God, or the Holy Spirit. At least in the versions I have read they are marked by capitalization. Even if he is used it is He and not he. To say "perfection" refers to Jesus in this case I feel would be a mistake.

So I am assuming that everyone agrees that the passage in question does refer to the end of spiritual gifts. If everyone agrees on that then the only thing left to be determined is when does or has perfection come. From what I stated above I do not see where perfection could refer to the return of Jesus. It would be simply disrespectful to not note the return of Jesus in such and ambiguous manner. Why would the writer be inspired to be ambiguous?
 
B P

Thanks for your comments - when Jesus, return this time, it's not going to be about the ending of miracles [no bible reference] it will be about bringing judgement and salvation.

The law of the LORD [is] perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD [is] sure, making wise the simple. Psalms 19:7

This is a good scripture that reference Christ:

"And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;" Hebrews 5:9

Notice: the word he, which refers back to Christ / Who / Son [Verse 5, 7, 8] Also, verse 10 help us to identify that the "perfect" is referring to Christ. No such transition or noun were used in 1:10.

"To the general assembly and church of the firstborn, which are written in heaven, and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect" Hebrews 12:3

Notice: Church of the Firstborn [Christ] "transition from Christ to Men" ...just men made perfect. Now we are talking about men and not Christ. What men, we would have to read the entire chapter to find out what me. We could not just say he is talking about the Apostles,becaue that may not be true.


"Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought:" 1 Cor. 2:6

I very well could have used 1 Cor. 2:6 to justify that the "perfect" in 1 Cor. 10, was referring to "them that are perfect" that is mentioned on 1 Cor. 2:6. We know this would be incorrect, becaues of the word "which in 1:10 and the them in 2:6 one is singular and the other plural.

"ambiguous manner"

You are absoutly right.

The bible describes how Christ, will return "thief in the night" meaning when you are not suspecting him.


For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: 1 Thess 4:16


When He returns, based on all of the scripture, He leaves very little room, if any for anyone to not know that He has returned.


So I am assuming that everyone agrees that the passage in question does refer to the end of spiritual gifts.

I doubt it - Then we have to do like the Apostle Paul " But they shook off the dust of their feet against them, and came unto Iconium." Acts 13:51
 
Killer Bees said:
On the speaking in tongues issue, look at Acts 2:4 which says something to the effect, "they began to speak with other tongues". This is not referencing the jibberish you here in some churches where they "teach" you how to speak in tongues. This was in reference to people speaking in languages "foreign" to their own tongue. In other words, it is like me being able to speak to a Mexican without studying on the language. It is NOT in reference to speaking some unknown unearthly mobo jobo language. All of the information mentioned by Paul on tongues was in reference to foreign language. There is no evidence of a situation in the Bible where some people understood the language and other didn't like you would get in some churches today. If speaking in tongues really existed today, that means that I could go to a church and the Mexican could go to the same church and WE BOTH understand what was said. That would be the miracle!! Not "Amasaing bya mocku sock". What is the point of speaking in tongues if no one understands what you are saying?

Paul also mentioned "Charity (love) never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away? (13:8)."
Click to expand...


Now I agree will you wholeheartedly on the gibberish thing. I too have heard so-called pastors tell their congragation, "now, all of you speaking in your heavenly language." Or somenthing like that. I totally agree with you there.

However, the rest I can't agree on. How would you explain 1 corinthians 14:2?

1 Corinthians 14
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
 
Dr H.. said:
Despite it being for unbelievers, miracles served to confirm, ?authenticate? and verify the truth. When Jesus sent the apostles out on the Great Commission, it is said, "And they went out and preached everywhere, the Lord working with them and confirming the word [logos] through the accompanying signs" (Mark 16:20). In addition, the purpose of this gift of tongues was to convince Jewish Christians that ? . . . God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life" (Acts 11:18).

Read Hebrews 2:2-4

I Corinthians 13:8-10

The Holy Spirit revealed God?s will only a part at a time, "bit by bit." Beginning in Genesis. A full and complete revelation was not revealed to the apostles at once. The miraculous powers such as prophecies, foreign languages [dikanos], supernatural knowledge, were some of the miracles by which the gospel was revealed and confirmed. However, when the gospel was completely revealed, miracles had served their purpose and ceased.

The "perfect" to which Paul refers does not mean the will of God, or the coming of Jesus Christ, who is the "Perfect One." Grammatically, when Paul said, "When the perfect is come," he used the neuter gender. Christ is not neuter gender, but masculine, only objects ?books, cars, houses, paper? are neuter, meaning neither male nor female. The word Paul use for perfect means "brought to completion; fully accomplished, fully developed; complete, entire, as opposed to what is partial and limited" (I Corinthians 13:10, Analytical Greek Lexicon). Therefore, when God's revelation to man was completed, "fully developed, entire," [The Gospel] there was no further need for miracles. They had served their purpose and come to an end--were "done away." We now have the perfect law of liberty, the Gospel (James 1:25).

In the Book of Jude. He write about "the faith, which was once for all delivered to the saints" (Jude 3). meaning the Gospel will never have to be modified or amended; it is perfect, complete, and finished. These miraculous gifts were to last until "the faith" was completed, until it became one unit [Walk by Faith and not by Sight]. Once it was made whole, finished, fully developed, the miracles which had been responsible for its revelation and confirmation passed away, because we know have the complete word of God [Bible]. That complete revelation was completed in A.D. 96, when the Apostle John finished his last letter [Revelation]. We now have the written word of God, all of the truth into which the apostles were guided by the Holy Spirit.
What purpose could tongues serve now in the plan of God?

Spiritual gifts were helping hands to an infant immature church. ?When I was a child I spoke as a child?put away childish things?

One thing for sure the grammatical structure of the Greek Language does not lie
Click to expand...

Dr H,

Jewish Christian? Was no such thing at that time, sir. They were actually considered as ?being in the way.?

I read Hebrews 2:2-4. What are you saying?

Doc,

So you are saying that all of the gifts of the Spirit ended once John pinned The Revelation of Jesus Christ? How do you figure, sir? What is your proof, I ask for the ninety-eleventh time? I guess when Paul admonished Timothy (and all of us) to study to show himself approved unto God he was speaking of the cannon of scripture that was to come, and not the Septuagint huh? By the way, would that be the Bible that the Council of Laodicea canonized in AD 363? But if we use your logic then the Church would have suffered a setback in AD 397 because the Council at Carthage omitted the book of Revelation. Doc, you live in America and at the time you can buy or be given a Bible anywhere and at any time. What about a brother in Sudan or China or Saudi Arabia etc?

Doc, that which is perfect has not come yet. The end of the age is what is perfect.

Last thing Doc?Is the Church mature now?

Stop telling me what you think or feel. With all due respect, what one thinks or feels is not worth a hill of beans. This goes for me as well. It doesn?t matter much what we think or feel. The thing that matters is the truth. You keep going back and forth but can?t answer what I have asked you. What did Christ tell the scribes and Pharisees in Matthew 15 who held on to their own traditions rather than the commandments of God? Don?t hold to a teaching that you can?t rightly defend. It can?t be defended because it is not correct.
 
Here is the passage in the New Living Translation.

1 Corinthians 13:8-10
8 Love will last forever, but prophecy and speaking in unknown languages and special knowledge will all disappear. 9 Now we know only a little, and even the gift of prophecy reveals little! 10 But when the end comes, these special gifts will all disappear.
 
Dr H said:
The bible describes how Christ, will return "thief in the night" meaning when you are not suspecting him.


For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: 1 Thess 4:16


When He returns, based on all of the scripture, He leaves very little room, if any for anyone to not know that He has returned.
Click to expand...

Are you serious? I guess you have never looked into the Day of the Lord? What about Matthew 24?

Matthew 24:29-31
29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

FYI: Verse 31 is speaking of the catching away->See Revelation 6 & 11

So, we will know the time of His is coming but not the day nor hour.
 
1 Corinthians 14:2

" For he that speaketh in an tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

Note: The words unknown and him are not part of the original greek Text. So I eliminitated it from the text for clarification.

That ties this back to the "love" chapter [13]

First, the word "tongue" is a reference to a language [glossa ? Spanish, Arabic, Latin, Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew]

The Apostle Paul, ?interestingly? address the subject positively and negatively. Negatively, it is not addressed to men. He who speaks in a tongue, is not speaking to men (Paul underscores that), but he is speaking, affirmatively, positively, beyond the shadow of doubt, to God.

Note: ?he who speaks? is one word [laleo glossa] ?Ones who continues to speak?

Simply put the tongues speaker, speaks in a tongue [language] that no one else can understand, he ends up speaking only to God, that is, only God can understand.

Here is a good example

It Sunday morning and Dr. H., mounts the pulpit and I began my sermon in the original language -

1. sectamini caritatem aemulamini spiritalia magis autem ut prophetetis.
2. qui enim loquitur lingua non hominibus loquitur sed Deo nemo enim audit Spiritu autem loquitur mysteria
3. nam qui prophetat hominibus loquitur aedificationem et exhortationem et consolationes .
4. qui loquitur lingua semet ipsum aedificat qui autem prophetat ecclesiam aedificat


1. Sectamini caritatem: aemulamini spiritualia, magis autem ut prophetetis
2. Nam qui loquitur lingua, non hominibus loquitur sed Deo: nullus enim audit; Spiritu vero loquitur mysteria.
3. Caeterum qui prophetat, heminibus loquitur ad aedificationem, exhortationem, et consolationem.
4. Qui loquitur lingua, se ipsum aedificat; at qui prophetat, Ecclesiam aedificat.


Sermon finished, I doubt if anyone can understand what I just preached. However "God can understand, why because He understand the language and I understand the language. Unless, there is someone in the congregation that understands the language, the entire sermon was useless [non - edification]. However, I edified myself, because I understand the language. If there is someone who understand the language, he becomes and interperter and translates the language to a language that the congregation understands, thus everyone is edified.

The sermon I just preached was 1 Corinthians 14:1-4. The two languages look similar, Latin and Greek the two languages are the "Parents" of some dialects Spanish.

But when the end comes

That is one of the definitions of "perfect" or complete. Here is an example, have you ever heard somone say "this is perfect" they are saying that it is complete or it finished - it can not go beyond this, thus "the end comes" when is "future tense" at the compleation of something, which was the Gospel.

Just a different translation, which I have already explained.
 
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